Showing posts with label financial management notes with solved illustrations. Show all posts
Showing posts with label financial management notes with solved illustrations. Show all posts

Thursday, June 3, 2021

#2 Techniques of Capital Budgeting solved illustrations pdf Financial Management notes with solved illustrations capital budgeting numericals with solutions pdf capital budgeting notes with solved problems pdf

   Techniques of Capital Budgeting Part 2 solved questions with solutions

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3. Machine A costs 1,80,000 payable immediately. Machine B costs Rs. 2,00,000 half payable immediately and half payable in one year's time. The cash receipts expected are as follows:

Year at end

Machine A

Machine B

1

40,000

----------

2

60,000

80,000

3

70,000

1,00,000

4

50,000

1,20,000

5

50,000

-----------

At 8 % opportunity cost, which machine should be selected on the basis of NPV?

Solution

Year

Machine A

Machine B

 

Cash Flow

PVF0.08

PV = Cash Flow × PVF0.08

Cash Flow

PVF0.08

PV= Cash Flow × PVF0.08

0

(1,80,000)

1.000

(1,80,000)

(1,00,000)

1.000

(1,00,000)

1

40,000

0.926

37,040

(1,00,000)

0.926

(92,600)

2

60,000

0.857

51,420

80,000

0.857

68,560

3

70,000

0.794

55,580

1,00,000

0.794

79,400

4

50,000

0.735

36,750

1,20,000

0.735

88,200

5

50,000

0.681

34,050

-----------

0.681

--------

 

NPV

34,840

NPV

43,560

NPV = PV of Cash inflow – PV of Cash outflow

NPV of Machine B is higher than Machine A. Hence, Machine B should be selected.

4. A company is considering a new project for which requires a Capital outlay of Rs. 5,00,000 and depreciation is to be allowed at 20 % on SLM basis. Forecasted annual earnings before charging depreciation is as follows:

Year

Earnings (Rs.)

1

2,50,000

2

2,50,000

3

1,00,000

4

1,20,000

5

80,000

Total

8,00,000

Evaluate the project using (a) Payback method. (b) Rate of return on original investment.

Solution

Payback Period

Year

Rs.

Cumulative

1

2,50,000

2,50,000

2

2,50,000

5,00,000

3

1,00,000

6,00,000

4

1,20,000

7,20,000

5

80,000

8,00,000

Total

8,00,000

 

 

Payback period = 2 years (Money invested or Capital outlay of Rs. 2,00,000 has been recovered in 2 years.)

Rate of return on original investment

Year

Earnings (Rs.)

Less: Depreciation

Net Earnings

1

2,50,000

(1,00,000)

1,50,000

2

2,50,000

(1,00,000)

1,50,000

3

1,00,000

(1,00,000)

0

4

1,20,000

(1,00,000)

20,000

5

80,000

(1,00,000)

(20,000)

Total

 

 

3,00,000

Average income = Total net income / no. of years = Rs.3,00,000 / 5 = Rs. 60,000

Rate of return on original investment = (Average income ÷ original investment) × 100

= (Rs. 60,000 ÷ Rs.5,00,000) × 100 = 12 %.

5. RBL Academy is considering a project with an initial outflow of Rs. 1,20,000 with following cash inflow:

Year

Cash inflow

1

32,000

2

28,000

3

30,000

4

30,000

5

29,000

Total

1,49,000

Comment on the project considering cost of capital to be 7% using internal rate of return method.

Solution

Calculation of Internal rate of return

Cash outflow = Rs.1,20,000

Average cash inflow = Total cash inflow / number of years = Rs. 1,49,000 / 5 = Rs. 29,800

Approximate payback period = Cash outflow / average cash inflow

= Rs. 1,20,000 /Rs.29,800 = 4.0268

In PVAF table, value near to 4.0268 in year 5 is 4.1002 at 7 % and 3.9927 at 15%.

Year

Cash inflow

PVF at 7%

PVF at 8%

PV at 7% = Cash inflow × PVF at 7%

PV at 8% = Cash inflow × PVF at 8%

0

(1,20,000)

1

1

(1,20,000)

(1,20,000)

1

32,000

0.9346

0.9259

29907.2

29628.8

2

28,000

0.8734

0.8573

24455.2

24004.4

3

30,000

0.8163

0.7938

24489

23814

4

30,000

0.7629

0.735

22887

22050

5

29,000

0.713

0.6806

20677

19737.4

Total of PV of cash inflow

122415.4

119234.6

NPV= Total of PV of cash inflow – PV of cash outflow

2415

(765.4)

 

Using interpolation formula

IRR = Lower discount rate + [NPV at lower rate / (NPV at lower rate – NPV at higher rate) × (Difference between two rates)]

= 7% + [2415/2415-(-765.4) × (8% - 7%)]

= 7% + [(2415/3180.4) × 1 %]

7% + 0.7593% = 7.7593 %

Since cost of capital is 7% and IRR is 7.7593%. Hence project should be included.





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Thursday, May 27, 2021

#2 Estimation of Cash Flow in Capital Budgeting solved problems pdf capital budgeting numericals with solutions pdf Financial Management Notes pdf http://rblacademy.com/

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Financial Management Online tuition

Capital Budgeting cash flow estimation numerical with solutions

Initial Cash Outflow = Cost of new plant +Installation Expenses +Other Capital Expenditure+ Additional Working Capital - Tax benefit on account of Capital loss on sale of old plant (if any) - Salvage value of old plant +Tax Liability on account of Capital gain on sale of old plant (if any).

Subsequent Cash inflow = Profit after Tax+ Depreciation+ Financial charge (1 - t) Repairs (if any) - Capital Expenditure (if any).

Terminal Cash inflow = Salvage value of asset ± Tax on capital gain / loss on sale of asset + Working Capital released.

1. The cost of a machine is 10, 00,000. It has an estimated life of 10 years after which it would be disposed off (scrap value nil). Profit or Earning before depreciation and taxes (EBDT/PBDT) is estimated to be 2, 75,000 p.a. Find out the yearly cash flow from the machinery, (given the tax rate @ 40%).

Solution

Depreciation = Cost of machine/ estimated life of machine = Rs. 10,00,000/10 = Rs. 1,00,000

Particulars

Amount (Rs.)

EBDT /PBDT

2,75,000

Less: Depreciation

(1,00,000)

PBT /EBT

1,75,000

Less Tax @ 40 % of EBT/PBT

(70,000)

PAT/EAT

1,05,000

Add: Depreciation

1,00,000

Cash flow

2,05,000

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2. ABC LLP is evaluating a capital budgeting proposal for which relevant figures are as follows:

Cost of the Plant 10,00,000

Installation cost 1, 00,000

Economic life 5 years

Scrap value Rs. 50,000

Profit before depreciation and tax Rs. 4,00,000 and Tax rate 40 %.

Solution

Depreciation = cost of plant + Installation cost – Scrap or Salvage value / economic life of plant

= (10,00,000 + 1,00,000 – 50,000) /5 = Rs. 2,10,000

Particulars

Amount (Rs.)

EBDT /PBDT

4,00,000

Less: Depreciation

(2,10,000)

PBT /EBT

1,90,000

Less Tax @ 40 % of EBT/PBT

(76,000)

PAT/EAT

1,14,000

Add: Depreciation

2,10,000

Cash flow

3,24,000

 

3. A firm buys an asset costing 10,00,000 and expects operating profits (before depreciation and tax) of 3,00,000 p.a. for the next four years after which the asset would be disposed off for 4,50,000. Find out the cash flows for different years. Also calculate terminal cash flow. Depreciation is to be charged at 20 % p.a. on WDV basis and rate of tax is 30 %.

Solution

Initial cash outflow = Rs. 10,00,000

Terminal Cash inflow = Salvage value ± Tax on Gain/loss of asset

= Rs. 4,50,000 – Tax on gain on sale of asset

= Rs. 4,50,000 – (30 % of Rs.40,400)  = Rs. 4,50,000 – Rs. 12,120 = Rs. 4,37,880

Capital Gain on sale of asset = Scrap value of asset – WDV of asset at the time of disposal

Rs. 4,50,000 – RS. 4,09,600 = Rs.40,400

Note: In case of gain, tax amount on gain on sale of asset will be subtracted. In case of loss, tax amount on loss on sale of asset will be subtracted

Capital Loss on sale of asset = WDV of asset at the time of disposal- Scrap value of asset

 

Year 1 (Rs.)

Year 2(Rs.)

Year 3(Rs.)

Year 4(Rs.)

PBDT

3,00,000

3,00,000

3,00,000

3,00,000

Less Depreciation

(2,00,000)

(1,60,000)

(1,28,000)

(1,02,400)

PBT

1,00,000

1,40,000

1,72,000

1,97,600

Less Tax @30 % of PBT

(30,000)

(42,000)

(51,600)

(59,280)

PAT

70,000

98,000

1,20,400

1,38,320

Add Depreciation

2,00,000

1,60,000

1,28,000

1,02,400

Cash Flow

2,70,000

2,58,000

2,48,000

2,40,720

Terminal Cash Flow

 

 

 

Rs. 4,37,880

 Calculation on Depreciation

 

Year 1(Rs.)

Year 2(Rs.)

Year 3(Rs.)

Year 4(Rs.)

Year 5(Rs.)

WDV

10,00,000

10,00,000- 2,00,000 = 8,00,000

8,00,000 –1,60,000 = 6,40,000

6,40,000 - 1,28,000 = 5,12,000

5,12,000- 1,02,400 = 4,09,600

Depreciation

20 % of 10,00,000 = 2,00,000

20 % of 8,00,000 = 1,60,000

20 % of Rs. 6,40,000 = Rs. 1,28,000

20 % of 5,12,000 = 1,02,400

 


4. From following income statement of project determine annual cash flow for the company.

Income Statement of the Project

Net Sales revenue

7,70,000

- Cost of Goods Sold

(3,00,000)

- General Expenses

(1,50,000)

- Depreciation

(70,000)

Profit before interest and taxes

2,50,000

- Interest

(50,000)

Profit before tax

2,00,000

- Tax@ 30%

(60,000)

Profit after tax

1,40,000

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Solution

Cash flow of the Project

Net Sales revenue

7,70,000

- Cost of Goods Sold

(3,00,000)

- General Expenses

(1,50,000)

- Depreciation

(70,000)

Profit before interest and taxes

2,50,000

- Tax@ 30%

(75,000)

Profit after tax

1,75,000

Add: Depreciation

70,000

Cash Flow

2,45,000

 Note: In the capital budgeting decision process, cash inflows in the form of raising the funds and cash outflows in the form of interest and dividend payments, are ignored.

The cash inflow arising at the time of raising of additional fund results in an immediate cash outflow also when these funds are used to procure the project. As such, there is no net cash inflow. Further, the cost of financing in the form of interest and dividend is truly reflected in the weighted average cost of capital which is used to evaluate the proposals. If the cost of debt or equity (ie, interest or dividends) is deducted from the cash inflows, then this cost of raising fund will be counted twice, first in the cash inflows and second, in the weighted average cost of capital. This is also known as Interest Exclusion Principle.

The interest payable to the lenders and the dividend payable to the shareholders are cash flows to the supplier of funds and not cash flow from the project. In capital budgeting, the cash flow from the project is compared with the cost of acquiring that project. A particular capital mix, the firm uses to finance the project is a managerial variable and primarily determines how project cash flows are divided between lenders and owners.

Thus, neither, the additional funds raised nor the interest/ dividend payable on these funds are treated as relevant cash flows for a proposal. Otherwise, there will be an error of double counting. The general principle is that the investment decision and the financing decision should be considered Separately. In other words, only the operating cash flows of a proposal should be brought into and evaluated in the capital budgeting process. The financial cash flows should be taken as constant and be kept outside the analysis.


5. RBL Ltd is planning to install a new machine costing Rs. 20,00,000 with a salvage value of Rs. 5,00,000 after 4  years of life. Following information is available in respect of the machine. Annual Production of the company will be 1,00,000 Units for year 1 and it will increase by 10 % p.a. over immediate preceding year production for next 3 years. Selling price = Rs. 20 per unit, Variable cost = Rs. 10 per unit, Fixed cost 3,00,000 p.a., Tax rate is 30 %. Depreciation is to be charged at 25 % on written Down Value. Calculate initial, subsequent and terminal cash flow of the machine.

Solution

Initial outflow for the machine = Rs. 20,00,000.

Subsequent cash inflow:

Particulars

Year 1 (Rs.)

Year 2(Rs.)

Year 3(Rs.)

Year 4(Rs.)

Sales in units

100000 units

110000 units

121000 units

133100 units

Selling Price per unit (Rs)

20

20

20

20

Total Sales

20,00,000

22,00,000

24,20,000

26,62,000

less: Variable cost (VC/unit × no. of units)

(10,00,000)

(11,00,000)

(12,10,000)

(13,31,000)

less: Fixed cost

(3,00,000)

(3,00,000)

(3,00,000)

(3,00,000)

EBDT

7,00,000

8,00,000

9,10,000

10,31,000

Less :Depreciation

(5,00,000)

(3,75,000)

(2,81,250)

(2,10,937.5)

EBT

2,00,000

4,25,000

6,28,750

8,20,062.5

less: Tax @30 % of EBT

(60,000)

(1,27,500)

(1,88,625)

(2,46,018.75)

PAT

1,40,000

2,97,500

4,40,125

5,74,043.75

Add: Depreciation

5,00,000

3,75,000

2,81,250

2,10,937.5

Annual Cash Inflow

6,40,000

6,72,500

7,21,375

7,84,981.25

Terminal Cash inflow

Rs. 5,39,843.75

 Calculation of Depreciation:

 

Year 1(Rs.)

Year 2(Rs.)

Year 3(Rs.)

Year 4(Rs.)

Year 5(Rs.)

WDV

20,00,000

20,00,000- 5,00,000 = 15,00,000

15,00,000 –3,75,000 = 11,25,000

11,25,000 - 2,81,250 = 8,43,750

8,43,750- 2,10,937.5= 6,32,812.5 (WDV at the time of disposal)

Depreciation

25 % of 20,00,000 = 5,00,000

25 % of 15,00,000 = 3,75,000

25 % of Rs. 11,25,000 = Rs. 2,81,250

25 % of 8,43,750= 2,10,937.5

 

 Calculation of terminal cash inflow

Terminal Cash inflow = Salvage value ± Tax on Gain/loss of asset

In this case there is a capital loss since Rs. 6,32,812.5 (WDV at the time of disposal) is more than Rs. 5,00,000 (Salvage value of asset)

= Rs. 5,00,000 + Tax saving on loss on sale of asset

= Rs. 5,00,000 + (30 % of Rs. 1,32,812.5)  = Rs. 5,00,000 + Rs. 39,843.75 = Rs. 5,39,843.75

Capital Loss on sale of asset = WDV of asset at the time of disposal- Scrap value of asset               

Capital Gain on sale of asset = Scrap value of asset – WDV of asset at the time of disposal

Note: While calculating Terminal cash inflow; In case of capital gain, tax amount on gain on sale of asset will be subtracted. In case of capital loss, tax amount on loss on sale of asset will be added as it indicates saving for the company due to appropriation of capital losses with other gains of the company.

6. RBL Ltd. is planning to purchase a machine for Rs. 2,00,000 which will help company to generate following earnings in the next five years

Years

Year 1

Year 2

Year 3

Year 4

Year 5

EBDT

60,000

65,000

68,000

70,000

70,000

 The purchase of machine will result in increase of working Capital by 20,000. The machine will be depreciated on SLM basis and has salvage value of Rs. 50,000. The company is subject to tax at the rate of 40 per cent. Calculate initial, subsequent and terminal cash flow of the machine.

Solution:

Cash outflow in the beginning = Cost of Machine + Working Capital

= Rs. 2,00,000 + Rs. 20,000 = Rs. 2,20,000

Terminal Cash flow = Salvage value + Working Capital = Rs. 50,000 + Rs. 20,000 = Rs. 70,000.

Depreciation = cost of machine +Salvage value / estimated life of project

= (Rs. 2,00,000 – Rs. 50,000) / 5 = Rs. 30,000

Year 1

Year 2

Year 3

Year 4

Year 5

EBDT

60,000

65,000

68,000

70,000

70,000

Less: Depreciation

(30,000)

(30,000)

(30,000)

(30,000)

(30,000)

EBT

30,000

35,000

38,000

40,000

40,000

Less: Tax @ 40 %

(12,000)

(14,000)

(15,200)

(16,000)

(16,000)

PAT

18,000

21,000

22,800

24,000

24,000

ADD: Depreciation

40,000

40,000

40,000

40,000

40,000

Annual Cash Inflow

58,000

61,000

62,800

64,000

64,000

Terminal Cash inflow

Rs. 70,000

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7. Vikalpa Limited is considering to purchase an asset having an estimated life of 4 years which will cost Rs. 13,00,000 with Installation cost of Rs. 2,00,000. There will be an Increase in working capital in the beginning of the year of Rs. 3,50,000. Scrap value of the new asset after 4 years will be Rs. 4,00,000. Revenues for entire life of machine from new asset is 25,00,000 p.a. other information is as follows:

Annual Cash expenses on new asset Rs. 11,00,000

Book value of old asset today is Rs. 5,00,000

Salvage value of old asset if sold today Rs. 6,00,000

Revenue generated from old asset annually Rs. 19,50,000

Annual Cash expenses of old asset Rs. 12,00,000

Depreciation on new asset is to be charged on 80% of the cost in the ratio of 4:8:6:2 over four years.

Existing asset is to be depreciated at a rate of Rs. 1,25,000 p.a. Tax rate is 30 % on revenues as well as on capital gains / losses. Calculate initial, subsequent and terminal cash flow of the machine. Calculate cash inflow from new machine, cash inflow from old machine, incremental cash inflow, terminal cash inflow and cash outflow for the information provided.

Solution

Initial Cash Outflow = Purchase price of asset + installation cost + Working Capital increase – Salvage/Scrap value of old asset ± Tax on Capital gain/loss on sale of old asset

In this case Salvage value of old asset is Rs.6,00,000 and book value is Rs. 5,00,000. Hence there is a capital gain of Rs. 1,00,000

Capital gain = Salvage value of asset – Book value of asset

Capital loss = Book value of asset – salvage value of asset

Note: There is Capital Gain in case Salvage/Scrap value > Book value and Capital loss in case Book value > Salvage /Scrap value.

While calculating initial cash outflow; Tax on capital loss on sale of asset is subtracted from initial cash outflow and tax on capital gain on sale of asset is added to initial cash outflow.

Initial cash outflow = Rs. 13,00,000 + Rs. 2,00,000 + Rs. 3,50,000 – Rs. 6,00,000 + 30 % of (Rs. 6,00,000 – Rs. 5,00,000) = Rs. 12,80,000.

Depreciation calculation:

Depreciation on new asset is to be charged on 80% of the cost in the ratio of 4:8:6:2 over four years.

So, cost of machine for depreciation purpose according to question = 80 % of (purchase price + installation cost) = 80 % of (Rs. 13,00,000 + Rs. 2,00,000) = Rs. 12,00,000.

Rs. 12,00,000 will be depreciated in the ratio of 4:8:6:2 over four years.

ð  4+8+6+2 = 20

Depreciation year wise:

 

Year 1

Year 2

Year 3

Year 4

Depreciation

Rs. 12,00,000 × 4/20 = Rs. 2,40,000

Rs. 12,00,000 × 8/20 = Rs. 4,80,000

Rs. 12,00,000 × 6/20 = Rs.3,60,00

Rs. 12,00,000 × 2/20 = Rs.1,20,000

 

Calculation of Subsequent Cash inflow, Incremental Cash inflow & Terminal Cash Inflow

Particulars

Year 1(Rs.)

Year 2(Rs.)

Year 3(Rs.)

Year 4(Rs.)

Revenue

2500000

2500000

2500000

2500000

Less: Cash expenses

(11,00,000)

(11,00,000)

(11,00,000)

(11,00,000)

EBDT

14,00,000

14,00,000

14,00,000

14,00,000

Less : Depreciation

2,40,000

4,80,000

3,60,000

1,20,000

EBT

11,60,000

9,20,000

10,40,000

12,80,000

Less: Tax @ 30 %

3,48,000

2,76,000

3,12,000

3,84,000

PAT

8,12,000

6,44,000

7,28,000

8,96,000

Add: Depreciation

2,40,000

4,80,000

3,60,000

1,20,000

Annual cash inflow from new machine

10,52,000

11,24,000

10,88,000

10,16,000

Less: Cash inflow of old asset

(4,92,500)

(4,92,500)

(4,92,500)

(4,92,500)

Incremental cash inflow

559500

631500

595500

523500

Terminal Cash inflow

 

 

 

7,20,000

 Calculation of Cash inflow from old machine

Particulars

Year 1 (Rs.)

Year 2(Rs.)

Year 3(Rs.)

Year 4(Rs.)

Revenue

19,50,000

19,50,000

19,50,000

19,50,000

Less: Cash expenses

(12,00,000)

(12,00,000)

(12,00,000)

(12,00,000)

EBDT

6,50,000

6,50,000

6,50,000

6,50,000

Less : Depreciation

(1,25,000)

(1,25,000)

(1,25,000)

(1,25,000)

EBT

5,25,000

5,25,000

5,25,000

5,25,000

Less: Tax @ 30 %

(1,57,500)

(1,57,500)

(1,57,500)

(1,57,500)

PAT

3,67,500

3,67,500

3,67,500

3,67,500

Add: Depreciation

1,25,000

1,25,000

1,25,000

1,25,000

Annual cash inflow from old machine

4,92,500

4,92,500

4,92,500

4,92,500

 Calculation of terminal cash inflow

In this case there is a capital gain since Rs. 20 % of Rs. 15,00,000 = Rs. 3,00,000 (WDV at the time of disposal as per the question) is less than Rs. 4,00,000 (Salvage value of new asset)

Capital Gain on sale of asset = Scrap/Salvage value of asset – WDV of asset at the time of disposal

= Rs. 4,00,000 - Rs. 3,00,000 = Rs. 1,00,000

Capital gain tax = 30 % of Rs. 1,00,000 = Rs.30,000

Terminal Cash inflow = Salvage value of new machine - Tax on Capital Gain of asset + Working Capital released

= Rs. 4,00,000 - Rs.30,000 + Rs.3,50,000 = Rs. 7,20,000.

Note: While calculating Terminal cash inflow; In case of capital gain, tax amount on gain on sale of asset will be subtracted. In case of capital loss, tax amount on loss on sale of asset will be added as it indicates saving for the company due to appropriation of capital losses with other gains of the company.


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8. RBL Academy is interested in assessing the cash flows associated with the replacement of an old machine by anew machine. The old machine bought few years back has a book value of Rs.1,20,000 which can be sold for Rs.1,20,000. The salvage value of this machine is zero after 5 years. It is being depreciated annually at the rate of 25 %p.a. (written down value method.) The cost of new machine is Rs.5,00,000 and it will not be required after 5 years. It has a salvage of Rs. 2,00,000. It will be depreciated annually at the rate of 25 % p.a. (Written down value method.)The new machine is expected to bring a saving of Rs. 1,40,000 in operating costs. Investment in working capital would remain unaffected. The tax rate applicable to the firm is 30 per cent. Find out the relevant cash flow for this replacement decision. (Ignore Tax on capital gain / loss).

Solution

Initial Cash outflow = Cost of new machine – salvage value of old machine = Rs. 5,00,000 – Rs. 1,20,000 = Rs. 3,80,000.

Subsequent annual Cash inflow calculation

Particulars

Year 1

Year 2

Year 3

Year 4

Year 5

Saving in cost (EBDT)

140000

140000

140000

140000

140000

Less: Incremental Depreciation

(95,000)

(71,250)

(53,437)

(40,078)

(30,059)

EBT

45,000

68,750

86,563

99,922

109,941

Less: Incremental Tax @ 30 %

(13,500)

(20,625)

(25,969)

29,977

32,982

Incremental PAT

31,500

48,125

60,594

69,946

76,959

Add: Incremental Depreciation

95,000

71,250

53,437

40,078

30,059

Net Cash inflow

1,26,500

1,19,375

1,14,031

1,10,023

1,07,018

Terminal cash inflow

2,00,000

Terminal Cash inflow = Salvage value of new machine = Rs. 2,00,000 (Tax ignored as per the question)

New Machine Depreciation calculation

 

Year 1(Rs.)

Year 2(Rs.)

Year 3(Rs.)

Year 4(Rs.)

Year 5(Rs.)

WDV

5,00,000

5,00,000 – 1,25,000 = 3,75,000

3,75,000 - 93,750 = 2,81,250

2,81,250 – 70312.5 = 2,10,937.5

2,10,937.5 - 52,734 = 1,58,202

Depreciation

25 % of 5,00,000 = 1,25,000

25 % of 3,75,000 = 93,750

25 % of 2,81,250 = 70,312

25 % of 2,10,937 = 52,734

25 % of 1,58,202 = 39,551

 

Old Machine Depreciation calculation

 

Year 1(Rs.)

Year 2(Rs.)

Year 3(Rs.)

Year 4(Rs.)

Year 5(Rs.)

WDV

1,20,000

1,20,000- 30,000= 90,000

90,000–22500 = 67500

67500 - 16,875= 50,625

50,625 - 12,656=37,969

Depreciation

25 % of 1,20,000= 30,000

25 % of 90,000 = 22,500

25 % of 67,500 = 16,875

25 % of 50,625= 12,656

25 % of 37,969 =9,492

 

Calculation of incremental Depreciation

 

Year 1(Rs.)

Year 2(Rs.)

Year 3(Rs.)

Year 4(Rs.)

Year 5 (Rs)

Depreciation of new machine

1,25,000

93,750

70,312

52,734

39,551

Less: Depreciation of old machine

(30,000)

(22,500)

(16,875)

(12,656)

(9,492)

Incremental Depreciation

95,000

71,250

53,437

40,078

30,059

 

9. Vikalpa Ltd is evaluating to replace a semi manually operated machine with a fully automatic one. The existing machine purchased 10 years ago, with book value of Rs. 1,60,000 has remaining life of 10 years. Its Salvage value is Rs. 40,000. The current machine has maintenance expense of Rs. 30,000. The company has been offered Rs. 1,00,000 for the old machine as a trade-in on the automatic model whose delivery price (before allowance for trade-in) is 2,50,000. The estimated life of new machine is 10 years salvage value being Rs.50,000. Installation cost of new machine will be Rs. 50,000. The new machine will help in saving of Rs. 1,10,000 p.a. in operations of the plant. No Maintenance costs are to be incurred by company as it will be borne by seller of machine.  The tax rate is 30% (applicable to both revenue income as well as capital gains/losses). Depreciation on both machine is on the basis of Straight line method throughout the life of both machines.. Find out the relevant cash flows.

Solution

Initial Cash Outflow = Purchase price of asset + installation cost + Working Capital increase – Salvage/Scrap value of old asset ± Tax on Capital gain/loss on sale of old asset

In this case Salvage value/ trade in value of old asset is Rs.1,00,000 and book value is Rs. 1,60,000. Hence there is a capital loss of Rs. 60,000

Capital loss = Book value of asset – salvage value of asset

While calculating initial cash outflow; Tax on capital loss on sale of asset is subtracted from initial cash outflow and tax on capital gain on sale of asset is added to initial cash outflow.

Initial cash outflow = Rs. 2,50,000 + Rs. 50,000 – Rs. 1,00,000 -  30 % of (Rs. 1,60,000 – Rs. 1,00,000) = Rs. 1,82,000

Cash inflow in all subsequent years will remain same as incremental depreciation will remain same in all years. Hence there is no need to calculate cash inflow for ten years. Cash inflow generated in first year will be similar to cash inflow in other nine years. In tenth year, terminal cash inflow will also be generated.

Depreciation on new machine = Purchase price excluding allowance for trade in + installation cost – salvage value / estimated life = (Rs. 2,50,000 + Rs. 50,000 – Rs. 50,000) / 10 = Rs. 25,000.

Depreciation on old machine = (Book value of asset – salvage value) / estimated life

= (Rs. 1,60,000 – Rs. 40,000) / 10 = Rs. 12,000

Incremental Depreciation = Depreciation on new machine - Depreciation on old machine

= Rs. 25,000 - Rs. 12,000 = Rs. 13,000

Calculation of subsequent cash inflow

 

Rs.

Savings in maintenance

30,000

Saving in operation of plant

1,10,000

EBDT

1,40,000

Less: Incremental Depreciation

(13,000)

EBT

1,27,000

Less: Tax @ 30 %

(38,100)

PAT

88,900

Add: Incremental Depreciation

13,000

Net annual Cash inflow

1,01,900

Terminal cash inflow

Rs. 10,000

 

Calculation of Terminal Cash inflow

Terminal cash inflow = Salvage value of new machine – sacrifice of salvage value of old machine due to its disposal in the beginning of the year

= Rs. 50,000 – Rs. 40,000 = Rs. 10,000

Note: Since calculation is based on SLM, no capital gain or loss arises as book value of machine is nil at the end of tenth year (For more details, refer to Income Tax Act, 1961). In case, salvage value of old machine is greater than salvage value of new machine then terminal cash inflow will be negative.

10. Vishnu ltd is consideringreplacing its old machine costing Rs. 1, 60,000 having a written down value of Rs.64,000. The remaining economic life of the plant is 4 years with zero salvagevalue at the end of 4 years. However, it has current salvage value of Rs. 60,000if disposed off today. The new machine being considered to replace old machineis of Rs. 2,50,000 having an economic life of 4 years and salvage value of Rs.50,000. The new machine, due to its technological superiority, is expected tocontribute additional annual benefit (before depreciation and tax) of Rs. 90,000.Find out the cash flows associated with this decision. Tax rate is 30%. (Ignoretax on capital gain or loss).

Solution

Cash outflow = Cost of new machine – scrap value of old machine

= Rs. 2,50,000 – Rs. 60,000 = Rs. 190,000

Depreciation on new machine = Purchase price– salvage value / estimated life

= (Rs. 2,50,000 – Rs. 50,000) / 4 = Rs. 50,000.

Depreciation on old machine = (Book value of asset – salvage value) / estimated life

= Rs. 1,60,000 / 4 = Rs. 40,000

Incremental Depreciation = Depreciation on new machine - Depreciation on old machine

= Rs. 50,000 - Rs. 40,000 = Rs. 10,000

Calculation of subsequent cash inflow

 

Rs.

Incremental benefit (EBDT)

90,000

Less: Incremental Depreciation

(10,000)

EBT

80,000

Less: Tax @ 30 %

(24,000)

PAT

64,000

Add: Incremental Depreciation

10,000

Net annual Cash inflow

74,000

Terminal cash inflow

Rs. 50,000

 

Calculation of Terminal cash inflow

Terminal cash inflow = Salvage value of new machine – sacrifice of salvage value of old machine due to its disposal in the beginning of the year

= Rs. 50,000 – 0 (salvage value of old machine is nil) = Rs.50,000 .

11. RBL Academy purchased a machine two years back at Rs. 1,75,000 has a remaining useful life of 5 years. It isevaluating to replace the old machine with a new one which will cost Rs. 2,50,000that includes installation cost of Rs. 10,000 and an increase in workingcapital of Rs. 30,000. The expected cash inflows before depreciation and taxesfor both the machines are as follows:

 

Year 1 (Rs.)

Year 2(Rs.)

Year 3(Rs.)

Year 4(Rs.)

Year 5(Rs.)

Existing Machine

30,000

30,000

30,000

30,000

30,000

New Machine

70,000

90,000

1,00,000

90,000

1,00,000

 

The company uses Straight Line Method of depreciation. Tax on income as well as on capital gains/losses is 30%. Calculate the incremental cash flows assuming sale value of existing machine: (i) Rs. 1,20,000, (ii) Rs. 60,000, (iii)Rs. 90,000 and (iv) Rs. 80,000.

Solution

Calculation of incremental initial cash outflow in different cases

Initial Cash Outflow = Purchase price of asset + installation cost + Working Capital increase – Salvage/Scrap value of old asset ± Tax on Capital gain/loss on sale of old asset

 

Case 1 Rs.1,20,000

Case 2  Rs.1,25,000

Case 3 Rs.90,000

Case 4  Rs.80,000

Cost of new machine including installation cost

2,50,000

2,50,000

2,50,000

2,50,000

Less: Scrap value of old machine

(1,20,000)

(1,25,000)

(90,000)

(80,000)

Add: increase in working capital

30,000

30,000

30,000

30,000

± Tax saving / paid on loss or gain on sale of old asset

(1,500)

0

(10,500)

(13,500)

Incremental initial cash outflow

1,58,500

1,55,000

1,79,500

1,86,500

 

Note – Since, in Case I, III and IV, there is a capital loss. Hence, tax calculated on capital loss is subtracted from initial cash outflow. While calculating initial cash outflow; Tax on capital loss on sale of asset is subtracted from initial cash outflow and tax on capital gain on sale of asset is added to initial cash outflow.

Capital loss = Book value of asset – salvage/scrap value of asset

Capital Gain = Salvage/scrap value of asset –Book value of asset

Depreciation on old machine = cost of old machine / estimated life

= Rs. 1,75,000 / (5+2) = Rs. 25,000.

Book value of old machine today = Rs. 1,75,000 – depreciation of 2 years of old machine

= Rs. 1,75,000 – Rs. 50,000 = Rs. 1,25,000

Calculation of tax paid / saved

 

Case 1 Rs.1,20,000

Case 2  Rs.1,25,000

Case 3 Rs.90,000

Case 4  Rs.80,000

Book value of old machine

1,25,000

1,25,000

1,25,000

1,25,000

Less : Scrap value of old machine

(1,20,000)

(1,25,000)

(90,000)

(80,000)

Capital gain / loss

5,000 loss

0

35,000 loss

45,000 loss

Tax @ 30 % on Capital gain / loss

1,500

0

10,500

13,500

Since, in Case I, III and IV, there is a capital loss. Hence, tax calculated on capital loss is subtracted from initial cash outflow.

 

Calculation of subsequent incremental annual cash inflow

 

Year 1 (Rs.)

Year 2 (Rs.)

Year 3 (Rs.)

Year 4 (Rs.)

Year 5 (Rs.)

Cash inflow before depreciation and taxes from new machine

70,000

90,000

1,00,000

90,000

1,00,000

Less: Cash inflow before depreciation and taxes from old machine

(30,000)

(30,000)

(30,000)

(30,000)

(30,000)

Incremental Cash inflow before depreciation and taxes

40,000

60,000

70,000

60,000

70,000

Less: Incremental depreciation

(25,000)

(25,000)

(25,000)

(25,000)

(25,000)

EBT (Earning before tax)

15,000

35,000

45,000

35,000

45,000

Less: Tax @ 30 %

(4,500)

(10,500)

(13,500)

(10,500)

(13,500)

PAT

10,500

24,500

31,500

24,500

31,500

Add : incremental depreciation

25,000

25,000

25,000

25,000

25,000

Incremental annual net cash inflow

35,500

49,500

56,500

49,500

56,500

Terminal cash inflow (Release of working capital at the end of 5th year)

 

 

 

 

30,000

 

Calculation of incremental Depreciation

Depreciation on new machine = cost of machine + installation cost / estimated life

 = Rs. 2,50,000 / 5 = Rs. 50,000

Depreciation on old machine = cost of old machine / estimated life

= Rs. 1,75,000 / (5+2) = Rs. 25,000

Incremental Depreciation = Depreciation on new machine - Depreciation on old machine

= Rs. 50,000 – Rs. 25,000 = Rs. 25,000

12. RBL Academy Ltd. is consideringan expansion plan. Approval of the plan will provide an opportunity of reducingthe annual operating cost by Rs. 70,000 over next 5 years. However, it willlead to modification of replacement plans of the company. Consequently, theexpenditure plans of Rs. 1,60,000 p.a. for year 3 and 5 will have to increase toRs. 2,00,000 p.a. and reschedule to occur in year 1 and 4. All other plans willremain unaffected. Find out the relevant cash flows for the expansion plan inrespect of the above for first 5 years given that the tax rate is 30% anddepreciation charged is as per Straight Line method (life 5 years).

Solution

Calculation of subsequent annual cash inflow

Particulars

Year 1

Year 2

Year 3

Year 4

Year 5

Savings in annual operating cost

70,000

70,000

70,000

70,000

70,000

Less: Tax @ 30 %

(21,000)

(21,000)

(21,000)

(21,000)

(21,000)

Net Saving

49,000

49,000

49,000

49,000

49,000

Add: expenditure not required

1,60,000

1,60,000

Less: new expenditure required

(2,00,000)

(2,00,000)

Incremental tax saving

12,000

12,000

2,400

14,400

4,800

Net Cash inflow

(1,39,000)

61,000

2,11,400

(1,36,600)

2,13,800

 

Calculation of Incremental tax saving

Incremental tax saving due to change in expenditure plan = Tax saving on new expenditure – Tax saving on planned expenditure changed.

Particulars

Year 1

Year 2

Year 3

Year 4

Year 5

Depreciation on new expenditure

40,000

40,000

40,000

80,000

80,000

Tax saving @ 30 % (A)

12,000

12,000

12,000

24,000

24,000

Depreciation on planned expenditure

0

0

32,000

32,000

64,000

Tax saving @ 30 % (B)

0

0

9,600

9,600

19,200

Incremental tax saving (A-B)

12,000

12,000

2,400

14,400

4,800

 

Depreciation on new expenditure incurred in year 1 = Rs. 2,00,000 / 5 = Rs. 40,000

Depreciation on new expenditure incurred in year 4 = Rs. 2,00,000 / 5 = Rs. 40,000

In 4th and 5th year Depreciation amount will be Rs. 40,000 + Rs. 40,000 = Rs. 80,000 ( expenditure has been incurred in year 1 and 4 ).

Depreciation on planned expenditure of year 3 = Rs. 1,60,000 / 5 = Rs. 32,000

Depreciation on planned expenditure of year 5 = Rs. 1,60,000 / 5 = Rs. 32,000

In 5th year Depreciation amount will be Rs. 32,000 + Rs. 32,000 = Rs. 64,000 (expenditure of year 3 and 5 both should be considered.)